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Posted By KellyM3 on 02/07/2012 7:15 PM
Here's how it reads:
Kelly,
I am not a lawyer and don’t even play one on TV, but the language in your document is similar to what is in ours. This is how it has been explained to me…
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The lien of the assessments provided for herein on any lot shall be subordinate to the lien of any first mortgage and ad valorem taxes on such lot.
This is fairly clear. The HOA lien comes after the first mortgage and tax liens.
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Sale or transfer of any lot shall not affect the assessment lien;
Also clear. Although I don’t understand how a sale can occur without first satisfying the lien.
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however, the sale or transfer of any lot pursuant to mortgage foreclosure or any proceeding in lieu thereof, shall extinguish the lien of such assessments as to payments which became due prior to such sale or transfer.
Here’s the confusing clause. What it appears to say is that after a foreclosure the
lien is extinguished. This is to be expected, and it exempts the bank that forecloses on the property from having to make good on outstanding liens. Banks want to see this clause in governing documents before they grant a mortgage.
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No sale or transfer shall relieve such lot form [sic] liability for assessments thereafter becoming due or from the lien thereof.
This last clause simply says that any new assessments that come after the a sale or foreclosure are okay.
There doesn’t seem to be anything here that would prevent your HOA from pursuing debts as a personal obligation of the former homeowner – even after a foreclosure.
And since you
can do this, you may be obligated to do it because of your fiduciary responsibility to the members. Please check with your attorney.