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JerryM1 (Texas)
Posts: 1
Posted:
Our community is governed by an out-of-state HOA...the board members are all in AZ with only one member elected from our TX community. My question is: Don't the members of a board have to be Home Owners? The Developer runs the HOA Board from AZ and all of our dues ($$$) go to AZ where the decisions are then made. It seems this is not fair representation. Does the Developer own the HOA?

Really confused and wondering if this is a legal entity. We are talking about a lot of $$ here.
Thanks for any help anyone can give us.

Jerry
BradP (Kansas)
Posts: 2,640
Posted:
Jerry:

It probably is legal, you would have to read your bylaws and CC&R's. Our association is that way, however, all of our board members are owners currently. It usually is set up that way when a development starts because the developer runs the association in its infancy but doesn't live there. Get with your neighbors and see if you can legally change your bylaws.

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