WilliamG1 (Florida)
Posts: 1
Posts: 1
Posted:
I am a member of a 250 parcel HOA in Florida. Our Bylaws state that Directors shall be elected at the annual general meeting, with voting by person or proxy. At the meeting, anyone can nominate themselves from the floor. There is no mention in Florida law (that I know of) or in our governing documents allowing or forbidding absentee ballots. Otherwise, we are governed by Robert's Rules. For at least the last ten years (and probably going back decades more), we have allowed absentee ballots to be used to give out-of-town members the opportunity to cast votes for specific candidates. Our absentee balloting procedure included safeguards which essentially treated the ballots equivilently to proxy provisions of state law. Does anyone know whether Florida law defines a proxy as excluding absentee ballots? Specifically, does any statute/ruling/precedent speak to the use of absentee ballots in HOA BOD elections?
This year, without any discussion, the BOD president unilaterally decided not to use absentee ballots. He received advice from a new association attorney directing him to mail out only proxy forms which allowed the parcel owners to either appoint the board secretary as their proxy, or to name someone else. The attorney specifically said not to include an absentee ballot. Nothing was mentioned in the mailing about the possibility of writing on the proxy form directions for how the proxy should vote for specific directors. The secretary was instructed by the board to cast each proxy's votes (seven for each proxy) such that each of six sitting directors who were running for reelection received a vote, and then to split the remaining vote evenly between each of two new candidates.
In defending the sudden change, the president claimed that almost all boards were elected without the use of absentee ballots. I believe he is totally incorrect on this point. However, I have nothing to back up my opinion except I know that every corporation in which I own stock has directions and provisions on their proxies which allow me to vote for or against specific candidates. Further, I believe the new procedure essentially disenfranchises residents who are out-of-town. This segment of parcel owners previously comprised roughly 50% of all parcel owners who voted.
Non-board members can't correspond with the attorney without the president's permission. I understand that an association's attorney can effectively only take direction from the board. What could have been the attorney's rationale for this specific advice? Doesn't an attorney for an association have an ethical responsibility to affirmatively act for, and to provide advice which protects, the common interests of the parcel owners as a whole? That is to say, the attorney is the lawyer for the "association", and not for the "board". Shouldn't the attorney act or give advice to protect the interests of the "association", even if it potentially conflicts with the interests of the "board" or its individual members? After all, the board has D&O insurance to protect them. Comments?
This year, without any discussion, the BOD president unilaterally decided not to use absentee ballots. He received advice from a new association attorney directing him to mail out only proxy forms which allowed the parcel owners to either appoint the board secretary as their proxy, or to name someone else. The attorney specifically said not to include an absentee ballot. Nothing was mentioned in the mailing about the possibility of writing on the proxy form directions for how the proxy should vote for specific directors. The secretary was instructed by the board to cast each proxy's votes (seven for each proxy) such that each of six sitting directors who were running for reelection received a vote, and then to split the remaining vote evenly between each of two new candidates.
In defending the sudden change, the president claimed that almost all boards were elected without the use of absentee ballots. I believe he is totally incorrect on this point. However, I have nothing to back up my opinion except I know that every corporation in which I own stock has directions and provisions on their proxies which allow me to vote for or against specific candidates. Further, I believe the new procedure essentially disenfranchises residents who are out-of-town. This segment of parcel owners previously comprised roughly 50% of all parcel owners who voted.
Non-board members can't correspond with the attorney without the president's permission. I understand that an association's attorney can effectively only take direction from the board. What could have been the attorney's rationale for this specific advice? Doesn't an attorney for an association have an ethical responsibility to affirmatively act for, and to provide advice which protects, the common interests of the parcel owners as a whole? That is to say, the attorney is the lawyer for the "association", and not for the "board". Shouldn't the attorney act or give advice to protect the interests of the "association", even if it potentially conflicts with the interests of the "board" or its individual members? After all, the board has D&O insurance to protect them. Comments?