ReginaR (Texas)
Posts: 4
Posts: 4
Posted:
Our bylaws state that elections are to be by secret written ballot. This has not been done in several years. Instead, the president has asked for volunteers to raise their hands if they wanted to occupy the BOD. Then a motion was made to let these volunteers occupy the BOD, and then the motion was seconded. Then a vote by a show of hands of the members present (a quorum was established) was taken. By a majority vote the volunteers were then considered elected to office.
It has been done this way for at least 3 years, probably longer than that. Since it has been done this way for so long, does that establish a precedence that negates the bylaws, or have all the boards that were elected in this manner been illegal? If the boards were illegal, then what kind of legal liabilites are there for the Association as well as the individual board members that served?
It has been done this way for at least 3 years, probably longer than that. Since it has been done this way for so long, does that establish a precedence that negates the bylaws, or have all the boards that were elected in this manner been illegal? If the boards were illegal, then what kind of legal liabilites are there for the Association as well as the individual board members that served?