CharlesW1 (Georgia)
Posts: 826
Posts: 826
Posted:
For the pass year and half (1½), I have read (on this discussion forum) what I believe to be the correct order of precedence, in which associations are expected to follow when conducting association business. (Amending the governing documents)
PLEASE, correct me “IF” I’m wrong.(Apparently I don’t have a clue) State law has “weight” over any and all governing documents and the CC&R supersedes the By-laws and RR. Therefore “IF” the Bylaws (lower percentage) states who is eligible to vote on a particular subject matter and the CC&R (greater percentage), which would the board be duty-bound to follow?
Our association has been working very diligently to become a POA (as many of you may know). The BOD and the majority of the residents feel that proceeding forward will, help to increase property values and benefit those who own property here, for many years to come. Except those (Lot owners) not eligible to cast a vote (members not in good standings) who will essentially vote against all purposed amendments, because the purposed amendments have a direct affect on their particular life style.
Our first attorney told the board (which we conveyed to the community) that to amend the CC&R we must receive 2/3 approval (I agreed with), by written ballot (as stated in the CCR&E) from the total association to proceed, when opting from HOA to POA.
We recently hired a new HOA attorney (specializes in Property Owners Associations) His interprets the governing document was that the board can exercise its right to suspend any Lot owners right to vote, (attached) if we so choose, (according to the By-laws) therefore not requiring the board to receive ballots from 2/3 of the total association. (186 lot owners)
As much as the attorney’s advice would benefit the board’s ability to promote the POA, I personally don’t feel that his interpretation is correct. What can I do? I have spent many hours online looking for help and reading our governing documents, attempting to gather PROOF to present to the PM and the other two board members of his misinterpretation?
I certainly don’t have the “legal interpretation” the attorney has conveyed. I’m just ONE homeowner/board member without the ability to provide legal advice; therefore the board is likely to adhere to the advice received by the attorney.
I would appreciate any information as too the clarification of our HOA attorneys advice.
What can, the BOD do, is there any thing we can do? Should we continue collecting ballots from ALL lot owners or can we/should we collect ballots from ONLY eligible voters as stated in the governing documents.
I’ll spend a considerable amount of time reviewing/re-reading previously written post pertaining to this particular subject (looking for help) as I’m familiar with the fact that this subject has been discussed previously. I myself have questioned several times before.
Thank you all as always.
Chuck W.
PLEASE, correct me “IF” I’m wrong.(Apparently I don’t have a clue) State law has “weight” over any and all governing documents and the CC&R supersedes the By-laws and RR. Therefore “IF” the Bylaws (lower percentage) states who is eligible to vote on a particular subject matter and the CC&R (greater percentage), which would the board be duty-bound to follow?
Our association has been working very diligently to become a POA (as many of you may know). The BOD and the majority of the residents feel that proceeding forward will, help to increase property values and benefit those who own property here, for many years to come. Except those (Lot owners) not eligible to cast a vote (members not in good standings) who will essentially vote against all purposed amendments, because the purposed amendments have a direct affect on their particular life style.
Our first attorney told the board (which we conveyed to the community) that to amend the CC&R we must receive 2/3 approval (I agreed with), by written ballot (as stated in the CCR&E) from the total association to proceed, when opting from HOA to POA.
We recently hired a new HOA attorney (specializes in Property Owners Associations) His interprets the governing document was that the board can exercise its right to suspend any Lot owners right to vote, (attached) if we so choose, (according to the By-laws) therefore not requiring the board to receive ballots from 2/3 of the total association. (186 lot owners)
As much as the attorney’s advice would benefit the board’s ability to promote the POA, I personally don’t feel that his interpretation is correct. What can I do? I have spent many hours online looking for help and reading our governing documents, attempting to gather PROOF to present to the PM and the other two board members of his misinterpretation?
I certainly don’t have the “legal interpretation” the attorney has conveyed. I’m just ONE homeowner/board member without the ability to provide legal advice; therefore the board is likely to adhere to the advice received by the attorney.
I would appreciate any information as too the clarification of our HOA attorneys advice.
What can, the BOD do, is there any thing we can do? Should we continue collecting ballots from ALL lot owners or can we/should we collect ballots from ONLY eligible voters as stated in the governing documents.
I’ll spend a considerable amount of time reviewing/re-reading previously written post pertaining to this particular subject (looking for help) as I’m familiar with the fact that this subject has been discussed previously. I myself have questioned several times before.
Thank you all as always.
Chuck W.
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Charles E. Wafer Jr.