SwanB (Washington)
Posts: 199
Posts: 199
Posted:
Our homeowners association has 441 members. Our Bylaws state each member in good standing shall be entitled to one vote in person or by proxy upon each subject properly submitted to vote at our Annual General Meeting. Our Bylaws are amended, changed or repealed at our Annual General Meeting by vote of two-thirds (2/3) of the members present provided a quorum is present. A quorum is reached with the presence of ten percent (10%) of all members of our association are present in person or by proxy.
My question is this: Why would the association continue with requiring a 2/3 vote in this case and not amend our Bylaws to require a majority vote?
I have reviewed the Bylaws and CCRs of other HOAs and not seen a consistency with either one or the other i.e. all with majority vote or all with 2/3 vote based on size of membership.
My question is this: Why would the association continue with requiring a 2/3 vote in this case and not amend our Bylaws to require a majority vote?
I have reviewed the Bylaws and CCRs of other HOAs and not seen a consistency with either one or the other i.e. all with majority vote or all with 2/3 vote based on size of membership.