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Subject: Compensation-By-Laws
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JoyceR2
(Virginia)

Posts:93


04/18/2017 6:02 PM  
The By-Laws state> Section 4 .Compensation. No director shall receive compensation for any service he may render to the Association. However, any director may be reimbursed for his actual expenses incurred in the performance of his duties.

A director on the board has been paid for more than one service currently and in previous years. He performs this work under a company name. He owns the company. Does this clause (even if the board voted to allow it)legal? Is his company eligible to bid on services needed in a community where he serves as a board member?

Not sure at this point if any other bids were requested or if this specific company submitted a bid.
JohnC46
(South Carolina)

Posts:6693


04/18/2017 6:29 PM  
While I may not agree wit it, a BOD Member could put his company forward for an association contract but he would have to abstain from voting on awarding the contract. The bottom line answer to your question is yes a BOD Members company could hold a contract with the association if awarding of such was done properly.
JoyceR2
(Virginia)

Posts:93


04/18/2017 6:40 PM  
Posted By JohnC46 on 04/18/2017 6:29 PM
While I may not agree wit it, a BOD Member could put his company forward for an association contract but he would have to abstain from voting on awarding the contract. The bottom line answer to your question is yes a BOD Members company could hold a contract with the association if awarding of such was done properly.




Have heard that response before in conversation but this language clearly does not define it as ok even if the person abstains from voting. There are no ifs, buts, exceptions.

Who is the legal authority interprets these written documents for HOAs? What agency?
SheliaH
(Indiana)

Posts:1859


04/18/2017 6:53 PM  
Not all states have such an agency - in fact, most don't. If you want a legal interpretation, talk to the association attorney or a private one if you're not on the board.

I agree there's a conflict of interest here, but as John stated, the rest of your board may be ok with this IF (and only if) the board member abstains from voting on any issue concerning the company. Personally, I'd take it a step further and have him/her leave the room when the item comes up for discussion.

As a practical matter, you might want to suggest the board come up with a policy to discuss potential and actual conflicts of interest to ensure everyone understands the documents - if you're on the board, make the motion. As for this board member, the board may need to vote on whether the contract should be renewed once it ends (personally I'd vote no because even if everything was done in the open, the appearance of a conflict is almost as bad as the real thing).
NigelB
(Texas)

Posts:194


04/18/2017 7:00 PM  
Posted By JoyceR2 on 04/18/2017 6:02 PM
The By-Laws state> Section 4 .Compensation. No director shall receive compensation for any service he may render to the Association. However, any director may be reimbursed for his actual expenses incurred in the performance of his duties.

A director on the board has been paid for more than one service currently and in previous years. He performs this work under a company name. He owns the company. Does this clause (even if the board voted to allow it)legal? Is his company eligible to bid on services needed in a community where he serves as a board member?

Not sure at this point if any other bids were requested or if this specific company submitted a bid.




Most associations have a clause in the ByLaws that prohibit a director from receiving compensation for any service rendered to the association, but generally that clause is included in a section that relates to the duties of the directors. I would think such a clause would most likely be interpreted to mean that an individual may not receive compensation other than expenses incurred for their work directly related to the position of director.

Your State might very well have a statute that provides some guidance - the State of Texas does and it is contained in Sec. 209.0052 of the Property Code and specifies under what circumstances an association may enter into a contract with a board member.

"1) the board member, relative, or company bids on the proposed contract and the association has received at least two other bids for the contract from persons not associated with the board member, relative, or company, if reasonably available in the community;

(2) the board member:

(A) is not given access to the other bids;

(B) does not participate in any board discussion regarding the contract; and

(C) does not vote on the award of the contract;

(3) the material facts regarding the relationship or interest with respect to the proposed contract are disclosed to or known by the association board and the board, in good faith and with ordinary care, authorizes the contract by an affirmative vote of the majority of the board members who do not have an interest governed by this subsection; and

(4) the association board certifies that the other requirements of this subsection have been satisfied by a resolution approved by an affirmative vote of the majority of the board members who do not have an interest governed by this subsection."
JohnC46
(South Carolina)

Posts:6693


04/18/2017 7:12 PM  
Posted By JoyceR2 on 04/18/2017 6:40 PM
Posted By JohnC46 on 04/18/2017 6:29 PM
While I may not agree wit it, a BOD Member could put his company forward for an association contract but he would have to abstain from voting on awarding the contract. The bottom line answer to your question is yes a BOD Members company could hold a contract with the association if awarding of such was done properly.




Have heard that response before in conversation but this language clearly does not define it as ok even if the person abstains from voting. There are no ifs, buts, exceptions.

Who is the legal authority interprets these written documents for HOAs? What agency?




Joyce

One could argue that the BOD Member is not receiving direct compensation. His company is. Obviously it is happening in your association and you do not like it.
JoyceR2
(Virginia)

Posts:93


04/18/2017 7:14 PM  
Posted By NigelB on 04/18/2017 7:00 PM
Posted By JoyceR2 on 04/18/2017 6:02 PM
The By-Laws state> Section 4 .Compensation. No director shall receive compensation for any service he may render to the Association. However, any director may be reimbursed for his actual expenses incurred in the performance of his duties.

A director on the board has been paid for more than one service currently and in previous years. He performs this work under a company name. He owns the company. Does this clause (even if the board voted to allow it)legal? Is his company eligible to bid on services needed in a community where he serves as a board member?

Not sure at this point if any other bids were requested or if this specific company submitted a bid.




Most associations have a clause in the ByLaws that prohibit a director from receiving compensation for any service rendered to the association, but generally that clause is included in a section that relates to the duties of the directors. I would think such a clause would most likely be interpreted to mean that an individual may not receive compensation other than expenses incurred for their work directly related to the position of director.

Your State might very well have a statute that provides some guidance - the State of Texas does and it is contained in Sec. 209.0052 of the Property Code and specifies under what circumstances an association may enter into a contract with a board member.

"1) the board member, relative, or company bids on the proposed contract and the association has received at least two other bids for the contract from persons not associated with the board member, relative, or company, if reasonably available in the community;

(2) the board member:

(A) is not given access to the other bids;

(B) does not participate in any board discussion regarding the contract; and

(C) does not vote on the award of the contract;

(3) the material facts regarding the relationship or interest with respect to the proposed contract are disclosed to or known by the association board and the board, in good faith and with ordinary care, authorizes the contract by an affirmative vote of the majority of the board members who do not have an interest governed by this subsection; and

(4) the association board certifies that the other requirements of this subsection have been satisfied by a resolution approved by an affirmative vote of the majority of the board members who do not have an interest governed by this subsection."






Thank you...

Any language allowing this still leaves much to be desired. To many ways to get around it depending on the make up of any board and in many circumstances that total lack of knowledge of many that tend to think others are not to be questioned or challenged or just are not committed and only follow. In my mind, why would any company even need to pursue a contact where they serve on a board. My guess is it is easy money and they are not getting work otherwise and/or registering as a company to make an income. It is bad business and if the term "reasonable business judgement" has an ounce of weight this should be banned.
JohnC46
(South Carolina)

Posts:6693


04/18/2017 7:15 PM  
Joyce

So far 5 have said it could be done properly yet you hold out it is not.
JoyceR2
(Virginia)

Posts:93


04/18/2017 7:25 PM  
Posted By JohnC46 on 04/18/2017 7:15 PM
Joyce

So far 5 have said it could be done properly yet you hold out it is not.





Not holding out. I hear what everyone has offered. And if that is the case so be it.

Appreciate all responses.
NigelB
(Texas)

Posts:194


04/18/2017 11:11 PM  
Posted By JoyceR2 on 04/18/2017 7:14 PM
Posted By NigelB on 04/18/2017 7:00 PM
Posted By JoyceR2 on 04/18/2017 6:02 PM
The By-Laws state> Section 4 .Compensation. No director shall receive compensation for any service he may render to the Association. However, any director may be reimbursed for his actual expenses incurred in the performance of his duties.

A director on the board has been paid for more than one service currently and in previous years. He performs this work under a company name. He owns the company. Does this clause (even if the board voted to allow it)legal? Is his company eligible to bid on services needed in a community where he serves as a board member?

Not sure at this point if any other bids were requested or if this specific company submitted a bid.




Most associations have a clause in the ByLaws that prohibit a director from receiving compensation for any service rendered to the association, but generally that clause is included in a section that relates to the duties of the directors. I would think such a clause would most likely be interpreted to mean that an individual may not receive compensation other than expenses incurred for their work directly related to the position of director.

Your State might very well have a statute that provides some guidance - the State of Texas does and it is contained in Sec. 209.0052 of the Property Code and specifies under what circumstances an association may enter into a contract with a board member.

"1) the board member, relative, or company bids on the proposed contract and the association has received at least two other bids for the contract from persons not associated with the board member, relative, or company, if reasonably available in the community;

(2) the board member:

(A) is not given access to the other bids;

(B) does not participate in any board discussion regarding the contract; and

(C) does not vote on the award of the contract;

(3) the material facts regarding the relationship or interest with respect to the proposed contract are disclosed to or known by the association board and the board, in good faith and with ordinary care, authorizes the contract by an affirmative vote of the majority of the board members who do not have an interest governed by this subsection; and

(4) the association board certifies that the other requirements of this subsection have been satisfied by a resolution approved by an affirmative vote of the majority of the board members who do not have an interest governed by this subsection."






Thank you...

Any language allowing this still leaves much to be desired. To many ways to get around it depending on the make up of any board and in many circumstances that total lack of knowledge of many that tend to think others are not to be questioned or challenged or just are not committed and only follow. In my mind, why would any company even need to pursue a contact where they serve on a board. My guess is it is easy money and they are not getting work otherwise and/or registering as a company to make an income. It is bad business and if the term "reasonable business judgement" has an ounce of weight this should be banned.





You have to look at what the intent of the clause in the ByLaws was. As with any legislation - what was the intent.

I think that it is pretty clear that the intent of a clause in the ByLaws of an HOA which prohibits any director from receiving compensation for services rendered to the association is to prevent an elected director from receiving compensation relating to his or her duties while a director.

In other words - Directors do not receive a salary or get paid for being Directors.

The fact that a Director may have an interest in a company that is doing business with an association is totally immaterial as long as appropriate measures are put in place to provide for bids, and the Director recuses him or herself from any involvement in the approval of contracts associated with the bid.

It's kind of like the government today - we want the best to serve, but some segment of society wants those that serve to totally divest themselves of any associations they might have with businesses that caused the administration to want them to serve in the first place. Help us run the country but sell all of your interests off.
LarryB13
(Arizona)

Posts:4099


04/18/2017 11:41 PM  
Posted By JoyceR2 on 04/18/2017 6:40 PM
Posted By JohnC46 on 04/18/2017 6:29 PM
While I may not agree wit it, a BOD Member could put his company forward for an association contract but he would have to abstain from voting on awarding the contract. The bottom line answer to your question is yes a BOD Members company could hold a contract with the association if awarding of such was done properly.


Have heard that response before in conversation but this language clearly does not define it as ok even if the person abstains from voting. There are no ifs, buts, exceptions.


Joyce,

I agree with your interpretation. No matter how above-board the directors can be, no director is permitted to receive HOA funds. A person can choose to be a director or a vendor, but not both.




Who is the legal authority interprets these written documents for HOAs? What agency?


In most states, that would be the equivalent to the Superior Court. It's kind of pricey but you need a court with jurisdiction to issue injunctions. The good news is that if you prove your case the judge will most likely require the defendant director to pay your attorney fees.
JanetB2
(Colorado)

Posts:3061


04/19/2017 12:42 AM  
Posted By JoyceR2 on 04/18/2017 6:02 PM
The By-Laws state> Section 4 .Compensation. No director shall receive compensation for any service he may render to the Association. However, any director may be reimbursed for his actual expenses incurred in the performance of his duties.

A director on the board has been paid for more than one service currently and in previous years. He performs this work under a company name. He owns the company. Does this clause (even if the board voted to allow it)legal? Is his company eligible to bid on services needed in a community where he serves as a board member?

Not sure at this point if any other bids were requested or if this specific company submitted a bid.


OK ...

This essentially in my personal non legal opinion states on layman terms that no Director can engage in any service such as landscaping, handyman, etc. for the HOA. However, if a Director has to pay for mailings at the post office sent to all members, copies of HOA documents, etc. which are "actual" expenses incurred in the performand of duties as a DIRECTOR ... then that is OK.
TimB4
(Virginia)

Posts:14315


04/19/2017 6:41 AM  
I believe that the words which are missing (but understood) is "as a Director"

That is to say No director shall receive compensation for any service he may render to the Association as a Director

Granted, that is not what the cited section says. Looking at the section as a whole, if challenged, I do think that a court would interpret it to mean "as a Director).
NigelB
(Texas)

Posts:194


04/19/2017 8:03 AM  
Posted By TimB4 on 04/19/2017 6:41 AM
I believe that the words which are missing (but understood) is "as a Director"

That is to say No director shall receive compensation for any service he may render to the Association as a Director

Granted, that is not what the cited section says. Looking at the section as a whole, if challenged, I do think that a court would interpret it to mean "as a Director).





I agree and restate that to interpret a document one first has to look at the intent of the document

Our ByLaws:

ARTICLE IV BOARD OF DIRECTORS

"Section 1, Composition of Board of Directors. The affairs of this Association shall be managed
by a board of three (3) Directors, who shall be Members of the Association.

Section 4, Compensation. No Director shall receive compensation for any service rendered to the Association. Any Director however may be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in performance of actual duties as a Director."


The Bylaws describe the duties and composition of the BOD and that they manage the affairs of the Association in Section 1. Section 4 should be interpreted to mean that a Director is prohibited from receiving compensation for the performance of those duties.

I believe that any reasonable legal interpretation would agree.

All of that being said - The OP should probably get an interpretation from a lawyer in the State that they reside in rather than attempt to validate any opinion as to the correct interpretation of the clause that they may already hold.
JoyceR2
(Virginia)

Posts:93


04/19/2017 8:48 AM  
Posted By NigelB on 04/19/2017 8:03 AM
Posted By TimB4 on 04/19/2017 6:41 AM
I believe that the words which are missing (but understood) is "as a Director"

That is to say No director shall receive compensation for any service he may render to the Association as a Director

Granted, that is not what the cited section says. Looking at the section as a whole, if challenged, I do think that a court would interpret it to mean "as a Director).





I agree and restate that to interpret a document one first has to look at the intent of the document

Our ByLaws:

ARTICLE IV BOARD OF DIRECTORS

"Section 1, Composition of Board of Directors. The affairs of this Association shall be managed
by a board of three (3) Directors, who shall be Members of the Association.

Section 4, Compensation. No Director shall receive compensation for any service rendered to the Association. Any Director however may be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in performance of actual duties as a Director."


The Bylaws describe the duties and composition of the BOD and that they manage the affairs of the Association in Section 1. Section 4 should be interpreted to mean that a Director is prohibited from receiving compensation for the performance of those duties.

I believe that any reasonable legal interpretation would agree.

All of that being said - The OP should probably get an interpretation from a lawyer in the State that they reside in rather than attempt to validate any opinion as to the correct interpretation of the clause that they may already hold.





I agree and appreciate all comments. It would have been wise when these documents were written and now for all associations to have an interpretation manual. Appears the Sterling-Davis is as close to that as anything I have seen. Only the authors actually know the true intent of much of the jargon in these documents. At any rate, thank you very much for the responses.

In y mind it is just not prudent to be on a board and render any contract services or be on a board and suggest a contractor no matter how well they have provided service to any board member. It eliminates any cause for homeowners to even think someone is getting special treatment, deals, kick backs etc. Locks keep honest people honest and do nothing to stop dishonesty.
RichardP13
(California)

Posts:2004


04/19/2017 10:02 AM  
While most people find nothing wrong in being paid if it was disclosed and MAYBE??? they rescued themselves from the discussion and vote (probably not going to happen), if you read their Bylaws, there is a problem.

It said you can be compensated for actual expense in his duties as a director. WHERE in the Bylaws does it says the director should be the property manager, or the landscaper, etc? If they were to do the bookkeeping, then the supplies they would use would be reimbursed, but not their time.
ND
(Florida)

Posts:182


04/19/2017 10:33 AM  
Posted By RichardP13 on 04/19/2017 10:02 AM
While most people find nothing wrong in being paid if it was disclosed and MAYBE??? they rescued themselves from the discussion and vote (probably not going to happen), if you read their Bylaws, there is a problem.

It said you can be compensated for actual expense in his duties as a director. WHERE in the Bylaws does it says the director should be the property manager, or the landscaper, etc? If they were to do the bookkeeping, then the supplies they would use would be reimbursed, but not their time.



I'm not so sure I follow whatever argument you're trying to make . . .

That said, the declaration/by-laws likely permit the board to contract with companies to provide necessary services to the association. It is not w/in the "job description" of a volunteer Board Member or Officer to do bookkeeping, landscaping, light bulb replacement, pool cleaning, trash removal, snow removal, or any number of other services that are necessary for operation and maintenance of the association IAW the governing documents.

However, should a Board Member or Officer own a company that does provide any of those services, it is certainly within the right of the Board to contract with that company to provide the services. And if/when that occurs, the contracted company would certainly be entitled to whatever the agreed-upon compensation is for those services (including time, materials, supplies, OH costs, and any appropriate amount of profit).


It seems like in the absence of factual evidence, the OP has concluded that their interpretation of the bylaws is correct (even though the majority of replies disagree) and that there is impropriety occurring where it may not exist. I suggest taking a step back, reassessing the situation, giving the benefit of the doubt to the volunteer board members, and if/when evidence of impropriety (favoritism, kickbacks, special treatment, deals, etc.) is found, then you can start questioning and criticizing the Board . . . but be prepared to step in as a Board member and do things as you think they should more appropriately be done.
TimB4
(Virginia)

Posts:14315


04/19/2017 2:27 PM  
Posted By JoyceR2 on 04/19/2017 8:48 AM

I agree and appreciate all comments. It would have been wise when these documents were written and now for all associations to have an interpretation manual. Appears the Sterling-Davis is as close to that as anything I have seen.




Joyce,

See the following:

Fairfax County Community Association Manual

FAIRFAX COUNTY 2016 Homeowners’ Association and Condominium Association Supplement Guide

FAIRFAX COUNTY 2015 Homeowners’ Association and Condominium Association Supplement Guide

JohnC46
(South Carolina)

Posts:6693


04/19/2017 2:56 PM  
A governmental organization publishing an Interpretation Manual is quite different than an association publishing and/or perishing by such. Based on having "deep pockets" to defend such is the issue. In most associations the BOD's ability, education, knowledge, funds. etc. is usually far beyond their desires to do a legally defensible "Interpretation Manual".

In another discussion on what is a "family unit" we have seen posters posting decisions/positions based on the poster's morality. Something I would not care to spend my associations money on defending.
LarryB13
(Arizona)

Posts:4099


04/19/2017 4:03 PM  
Posted By ND on 04/19/2017 10:33 AM
However, should a Board Member or Officer own a company that does provide any of those services, it is certainly within the right of the Board to contract with that company to provide the services. And if/when that occurs, the contracted company would certainly be entitled to whatever the agreed-upon compensation is for those services (including time, materials, supplies, OH costs, and any appropriate amount of profit).


That seems to be precisely what the OP's bylaws seek to prohibit. The bylaws prohibit a director from receiving compensation for work done for the association. It is a violation of the bylaws for the director to perform the work and, by extension, for the association to enter into a contractual agreement with such a director. Neither the board nor a director has any "right" to such a contract.

JoyceR2
(Virginia)

Posts:93


04/19/2017 4:28 PM  
Posted By TimB4 on 04/19/2017 2:27 PM
Posted By JoyceR2 on 04/19/2017 8:48 AM

I agree and appreciate all comments. It would have been wise when these documents were written and now for all associations to have an interpretation manual. Appears the Sterling-Davis is as close to that as anything I have seen.




Joyce,

See the following:

Fairfax County Community Association Manual

FAIRFAX COUNTY 2016 Homeowners’ Association and Condominium Association Supplement Guide

FAIRFAX COUNTY 2015 Homeowners’ Association and Condominium Association Supplement Guide





Tim:

I always appreciate your thoughts and wish we had the likes of you in our community. Thank You!
NigelB
(Texas)

Posts:194


04/19/2017 11:30 PM  
Posted By LarryB13 on 04/19/2017 4:03 PM
Posted By ND on 04/19/2017 10:33 AM
However, should a Board Member or Officer own a company that does provide any of those services, it is certainly within the right of the Board to contract with that company to provide the services. And if/when that occurs, the contracted company would certainly be entitled to whatever the agreed-upon compensation is for those services (including time, materials, supplies, OH costs, and any appropriate amount of profit).


That seems to be precisely what the OP's bylaws seek to prohibit. The bylaws prohibit a director from receiving compensation for work done for the association. It is a violation of the bylaws for the director to perform the work and, by extension, for the association to enter into a contractual agreement with such a director. Neither the board nor a director has any "right" to such a contract.




That is of course your interpretation of the ByLaws.

You added the "by extention" comment and that simply cannot be done when looking at a document and interpreting its intent.

My interpretation is that the intent of the clause in the ByLaws is that they prohibit a Director from receiving compensation for any service the Director performs as a result of his or her duties as a Director. But that the Director may receive reimbursement for expenses so incurred - for example a light goes out on a HOA sign, the Director fixes the sign and gets reimbursed the cost of the replacement light. Just using looking at those words it is obvious that the clause relates strictly to the duties performed which relate to the duties of a Director.

The actual discussion here should be whether or not a Director of an Association should enter into a contract with the Association and be paid for services rendered as a result of that Directors participation in a vendor.

While perhaps not unethical - it certainly has the potential of having the perception of being unethical and therefore should be avoided.
AugustinD


Posts:472


04/20/2017 8:43 AM  
I agree this board member's company contracting with the Association is, at a minimum, a conflict of interest. A HOA in which I lived 20 years ago had a similar board member who had "served" a long time, all the while enriching his landscaping company. Then some members made a big deal out of it. The Director said he gave the HOA discounts. And so on. The board member was voted out within a year.

Such directors who also want to do business with an association have a lot of inside information that can yield unfair bidding processes and undue influence on the other directors.

Folks who do not get that there is a conflict of interest with this kind of contracting make the worst directors, in my opinion. I do not care what kind of discount is allegedly offered. Someone is going for apparent low-hanging fruit to increase her or his revenue stream. The point of conflict-of-interests clauses in government in general is to put this fruit much higher up. Also directors who do some kind of business with an association tend to rationalize in private that they do all this work and give all this time; why shouldn't they get a break when it comes to following the covenants or maybe reap some income in one form or another for their service. It disgusts me. It's very rare for covenants to permit directors to be compensated. This reality is why the courts tend to be as generous as possible to the judgement of directors: They're volunteeers, doing the best they can. This is yet another reason why directors are not supposed to seek enrichment from the Association while serving as a director.

Still I think a court would be annoyed to have to hear this. I think competent HOA attorneys would say it's not black and white. They would say that the most efficient recourse is to get someone to run against this board member.
RichardP13
(California)

Posts:2004


04/20/2017 9:14 AM  
Posted By NigelB on 04/19/2017 11:30 PM

The actual discussion here should be whether or not a Director of an Association should enter into a contract with the Association and be paid for services rendered as a result of that Directors participation in a vendor.




The answer is NO!
JoyceR2
(Virginia)

Posts:93


04/20/2017 6:48 PM  
Posted By JohnC46 on 04/19/2017 2:56 PM
A governmental organization publishing an Interpretation Manual is quite different than an association publishing and/or perishing by such. Based on having "deep pockets" to defend such is the issue. In most associations the BOD's ability, education, knowledge, funds. etc. is usually far beyond their desires to do a legally defensible "Interpretation Manual".

In another discussion on what is a "family unit" we have seen posters posting decisions/positions based on the poster's morality. Something I would not care to spend my associations money on defending.




Nor would I.
SueW6
(Michigan)

Posts:177


04/22/2017 6:11 AM  
If a board member has a special area of expertise, then consideration can be given to hire that person.

For example, one of our board members is a certified water quality inspector. Our HOA needed that service. We could not even find anyone else to submit a bid for these services.

I think a real basis of a "conflict of interest" is that THE BOARD CANNOT CREATE WORK FOR ITS BOARD MEMBERS IN ORDER TO GET PAID.

Also, Board members cannot be compensated for their "work" done in carrying out board duties (meetings, etc.) unless it's in the documents. Our HOA paid the Treasurer a fixed amount, plus approved overtime.

Of course, adherence to the blind bidding process always helps to make a level playing field.



KerryL1
(California)

Posts:4075


04/23/2017 12:31 PM  
I can't look it up now, but Calif. Corporations Code, does permit directors' companies to make contracts with the corporation (HOA). They have to reveal that they are an "interested director," i.e., that they hold an ownership interest in the company under consideration. They must recuse themselves on that vote, but can be counted towards quorum.

My own opinion is it's not a good idea aa homeowners may suspect favoritism, which could lead to a lack of trust of the Board.
KerryL1
(California)

Posts:4075


04/23/2017 12:37 PM  
My point, Joyce, is that VA corps code my clear up any ambiguity in your bylaws.
JoyceR2
(Virginia)

Posts:93


04/23/2017 1:13 PM  
Posted By KerryL1 on 04/23/2017 12:37 PM
My point, Joyce, is that VA corps code my clear up any ambiguity in your bylaws.





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