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Posted By CraigC6 on 11/21/2011 11:56 AM
THE QUESTION IS IF THEY ARE USING WATER DO THEY HAVE TO ABIDE BY ALL BYLAWS WHICH DONT RELATE TO THE WATER.
I see two separate issues. First, did the developer grant easements or other recorded documents to all owners to use the well? Second, did the developer create some method other than the voluntary HOA, such as a private water company, to operate the well?
If all owners were granted use of the community well by the developer and also were not required to join the HOA, then there is little legal basis for compelling all owners to join the HOA. Even if the CC&R's mandated that the HOA operate the well, there is no legal basis for requiring HOA membership as a condition to use the well.
There is, however, substantial case law that holds that persons who use common facilities can be compelled to contribute to their maintenance. See
Freeman v. Sorchych and especially those cases referred to in Footnote 9 at the bottom of page 14. Note that in legal terms, "dominant tenement" means the person(s) to whom an easement has been granted and "servient estate" means the property over which the easement has been granted.
Of particular note from the above footnote is:
Meadow Run & Mountain Lake Park Ass'n v. Berkel, 598 A.2d 1024, 1027 (Pa. Super. Ct. 1991), "holding that repair and maintenance costs for common roads and other common areas were the responsibility of the residential users and not the homeowners' association that held title to the roads."
I would strongly suggest forwarding the above citations on to your attorney for a re-evaluation of your options.